Q. 1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase causes Phenylketonuria. Phenylalanine
hydroxylase converts phenylalanine to

Q.2 T cells and B cells are

Q.3 In humans, the testis temperature is maintained below the core body temperature with the
help of

Q.4 Protein that helps other proteins to fold correctly is

Q.5 The CORRECT sequence of phases during mitosis is

Q.6 The curve y= x4-4x3+4x2-4
has tangents parallel to the x-axis at the following points ( x, y)

Q.7 In viruses, capsids are made up of

Q.8 The common component in crustacean exoskeleton and fungal cell wall is

Q.9 The CORRECT sequence of evolution (simplest to complex) is

Q.10 For an ideal gas at room temperature, choose the CORRECT representation(s) of
Boyle’s Law.
(P = Pressure, V = Volume, T = Temperature)

Q. 11 – Q. 30 carry two marks each.
Q.11 During El Niño,

Q.12 Match the deficiency conditions in Group I with the corresponding vitamin in Group II

Q.13 Eutrophication refers to an aging process from a

Q.14 Which one of the following ions has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(A) Cu2+ (B) Na+
(C) Cr3+ (D) Fe3+

Q.15 Match the enzymes in Group I with the corresponding substrate in Group II

Q.16 In ABO blood group testing, which one of the following is INCORRECT

Q.17 If a coin is tossed three times, what is the probability that NO two successive tosses show
the same face?

Q.18 Match the RNAs in Group I with their corresponding function in Group II

Q.19 In a typical mammalian cell, the protein content is 20 % of its net weight. If the density and
volume of the cell are 1.2 g/mL and 4 × 10−9 mL, respectively, then the concentration
(in mg/mL) of the protein is

Q.21 Match the type of bacterial flagella in Group I with their definitions in Group II

Q.23 Match the diseases in Group I with their causative organisms in Group II

Q.24 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: The difference in the respective melting points of butter and coconut oil is
caused by the degrees of saturation of the corresponding fatty acid chain.

Reason [r]: Unsaturated fatty acid chains in fats/lipids become solid more easily because they
are relatively straight and thus able to pack together more closely than saturated chain.

Q.25 Match the techniques in Group I with their applications in Group II for protein analysis

Q. 26 The following carboxylic acids have a general formula, R-COOH.
(ii) CH3 - COOH
(iii) ClCH2 - COOH
(iv) CF3 - COOH
Which one of the following represents the decreasing order of their respective pKa values?

Q.27 Which one of the following compounds is the simplest alkane that is optically active?

Q.28 In the following reaction, X is an intermediate and Y is one of the end products.

Q.29 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].
Assertion [a]: lac operon is an inducible operon.
Reason [r]: lac operon is not induced when the repressor protein remains bound to operator
DNA sequence.

Q.30 IR spectrum of a compound C5H10O shows a band at 1715 cm-1. The same compound showed two signals, a triplet and a quartet, in its NMR spectrum. Identify the compound from the following.


Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.
Q.31 Which of the following is(are) auxins?

Q.32 Which of the following is(are) TRUE about photosynthesis?

Q.33 Which of the following is(are) involved in the activation of cytotoxic T cells?

Q.34 DNA and RNA are acidic in nature due to the presence of

Q.35 Which of the following is(are) CORRECT?

Q.36 Protozoa are

Q.37 Which of the following curve/straight line equations will pass through the origin when
plotted on a graph?

Q.38 Consider two bodies with equal masses of 1012 kg each and R distance apart. Let G be the gravitational constant and V0 be a constant with dimensions of energy. Which of the following represent(s) gravitational potential energy (V) between the bodies, such that Newton’s law of gravitation is valid?

Q.39 Which of the following is(are) CORRECT?

Q.40 Which of the following gas(es) function(s) as signaling molecule(s) in the human nervous


Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.
Q.41 The generation time of E. coli is 20 minutes. If there are 106 E. coli present in an
exponentially growing synchronous culture, then the average time (in minutes) required to
obtain a final population of 4×106 E. coli is ________.

Q.45 Consider two particles, each of mass 20 g; the first particle is moving with a speed of 10 m/s
along a one-dimensional track in the positive x-direction and collides with the second particle
at rest. Assuming that the collision is elastic, the speed (in m/s) of the first particle after the
collision is ________

Q.47 The volume (in mL) required to prepare 350 mL of 1X buffer solution from a fifty times
(50X) concentrated buffer stock solution is ________.

Q.48 A compound microscope has its objective with linear magnification of 10. In order to achieve
a final magnification of 100, the angular magnification of the eyepiece should be ________.

Q.49 The decimal reduction time (DRT or D value) of a bacterial culture is one minute. If a
suspension of the bacterial culture contains an initial population of 106 cells, then the time
(in minutes) required to reduce the number of bacteria to 10 by heat treatment is ________.

Q. 51 – Q. 60 carry two marks each.
Q.51 A variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR) locus has 15 different alleles. The number of
genotypes possible in a population for this VNTR is ________.

Q.52 The vibrational frequency (expressed in wavenumber) of 1H 35Cl is 2990.6 cm-1. Assuming that the force constant is same in both the cases, vibrational frequency (in cm-1) of 2D 35Cl is ________.

Q.53 The length of transverse and conjugate axis in a hyperbola are 6 and 8, respectively. The
eccentricity of the hyperbola, rounded off to TWO decimal places, is ________.

Q.56 A bouncing ball is dropped from an initial height of h meters above a flat surface. Each time
the ball hits the surface, it rebounds a distance r x h meters and it bounces indefinitely.
Consider the value of h = 5 meters and r = 1/3. The total vertical distance (up and down)
travelled (in meters) by the ball is ______.

Q.57 One point charge (q) each, is placed along a line at 3 different points x = 0, x = 2 nm and x = 6 nm. The force between two charges separated by 2 nm is 2 piconewton (pN). The magnitude of force (in pN) on the charge in the middle due to the other two charges is ________.

Q.58 Energy of the electron in hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The energy required
(in eV) to move the electron from its ground state to the first excited state, rounded off to
TWO decimal places, is ________.

Q.60 In an enzyme catalyzed first-order reaction, the substrate conversion follows an exponential
pattern such that 80 % of the substrate is converted in 10 minutes. The first-order rate constant (in min-1) of the reaction, rounded off to THREE decimal places, is __________.







Welcome to your IIT JAM CHEMISTRY 2021


Q. 1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The CORRECT order of pKa for the compounds I to IV in water at 298 K is
1. Hco(CO)4
2. Hco(CO)3 (PPh)3
3. Hco(CO)3 (P(OPh)3)
4. Hco(CO)2 (PPh3)2

Q.2 For Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and F, the CORRECT order of ionic radii is
(A) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F
(B) Al3+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > F
(C) F- > Na+ > Mg2+ >Al3+
(C) Na+ > F- > Mg2+ >Al3+

Q.3 Spin-only magnetic moments (in BM) of [NiCl2(PPh3)2] and [Mn(NCS)6] 4− , respectively, are

(A) 0.00 and 5.92
(B) 2.83 and 1.89
(C) 0.00 and 1.89
(D) 2.83 and 5.92

Q.4 Two sets of quantum numbers with the same number of radial nodes are

Q.5 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Q.6 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Q.7 A compound shows 1H NMR peaks at δ-values (in ppm) 7.31 (2H), 7.21 (2H), 4.5 (2H) and
2.3 (3H). The structure of the compound is

Q.8 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Q.9 A pure substance M has lesser density in solid state than in liquid state. The ΔSfusion of M
is +25 J K−1 mol−1. The CORRECT representative Pressure-Temperature diagram for the fusion of M is

Q.10 Among the following, the matrices with non-zero determinant are

Q.11 Reaction of BCl3 with NH4Cl at 140 °C produces compound P. Further, P reacts with
NaBH4 to give a colorless liquid Q. The reaction of Q with H2O at 100 C produces
compound R and a diatomic gas S. Among the following, the CORRECT statement is

A) P is B3N3H6
(B) R is [B(OH)NH]3
(C) Q is [BClNH]3
(D) S is Cl2

Q.12 The complex that does NOT obey the 18-electron rule is
(Given: Atomic numbers of Ti, Mn, Ta and Ir are 22, 25, 73 and 77, respectively)

(A) [(η5 -C5H5)Ti(CO)4]
(B) [Mn(SnPh3)2(CO)4]
(C) [(η5-C5H5)Ir(CH2)(PMe3)]
(D) [TaCl3(PEt3)2(CHCMe3)]

Q.13 Hybridization of the central atoms in I3, ClF3 and SF4, respectively, are

(A) sp3d, sp2 and dsp2
(B) sp, sp3 d and dsp2
(C) sp3 d, sp3 d and sp3 d
(D) sp, sp2 and sp3 d

Q.14 Reaction of [Ni(CN)4] 2− with metallic potassium in liquid ammonia at −33 °C yields complex E. The geometry and magnetic behavior of E, respectively, are

Q.15 The decreasing order of C=C bond length in the following complexes is

I. [Cl3pt(CH2=CH2)]-
II. [Cl3pt(C(CN)2=C(CN)2)]-
III. [Cl3pt(CF2=CH2)]-
IV. [Cl3pt(CF2=CF2)]-

Q.16 The CORRECT combination for metalloenzymes given in Column I with their catalytic reactions in Column II is

Q.17 According to the crystal field theory, d–d transition observed in [Ti(H2O)6] 3+ is

Q.18 The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is

Q.19 The products P, Q, R and S formed in the following reactions are

Q.20 The major products E and F formed in the following reactions are

Q.21 The reaction that produces the following as a major product is

Q.22 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Q.23 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Q. 24 In the following reaction, compound Q is

Q.25 Monochromatic X-rays having energy 2.8 x 10−15 J diffracted (first order) from (200)
plane of a cubic crystal at an angle 8.5º. The length of unit cell in Å of the crystal (rounded
off to one decimal place) is
(Given: Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 x 10−34 J s; c = 3.0 x 108 m s−1)

Add description here!

Q.29 The CORRECT statement regarding the molecules BF3 and CH4 is

(A) Both BF3 and CH4 are microwave active
(B) Both BF3 and CH4 are infrared active
(C) CH4 is microwave active and infrared inactive
(D) BF3 is microwave active and infrared active

Q.30 For the consecutive reaction,


Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.
Q.31 The CORRECT statement(s) about the species is (are)

(A) CpMo(CO)3 and CpW(CO)3 are isoelectronic (where Cp is cyclopentadienyl)
(B) CH2−and NH2 are isolobal and isoelectronic
(C) BH and CH are isolobal and isoelectronic
(D) CH3 and Mn(CO)5 are isolobal

Q.32 The complex(es) that show(s) Jahn-Teller distortion is (are)

(A) [Co(CN)5(H2O)]3-
(B) [NiF6]2-
(C) [Mn(CNMe)6]2+
(D) [Co(en)2F2]+

Q.33 The CORRECT statement(s) about sodium nitroprusside is (are)

(A) It is a paramagnetic complex
(B) Nitroprusside ion is formed in the brown ring test for nitrates
(C) It is used for the detection of S2−in aqueous solution
(D) It contains nitrosyl ligand as NO+

Q.34 The pigment responsible for red color in tomato has one functional group. The CORRECT statement(s) about this functional group is (are)

Q.35 Hantzsch pyridine synthesis involves several steps. Some of those are

Q.36 The compound(s), which give(s) benzoic acid on oxidation with KMnO4, is (are)

Q.37 The products P and Q formed in the reaction are

Q.38 The functional group(s) in reducing sugar that tests positive with Tollen’s reagent is (are)

Q.39 Among the following, the anti-aromatic compound(s) is (are)

Q.40 The CORRECT Maxwell relation(s) derived from the fundamental equations of thermodynamics is (are)


Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.

Q.41 The total number of optically active isomers of dichloridobis(glycinato)cobaltate(III) ion
is ______.

Q.42 The total number of microstates possible for a d8 electronic configuration is ______.

Q.43 For the following fusion reaction,
4 1H -->4He + 2β+ + 2υ + γ the Q-value (energy of the reaction) in MeV (rounded off to one decimal place) is ______.
(Given: Mass of 1H nucleus is 1.007825 u and mass of 4He nucleus is 4.002604 u)

Q.44 MgO crystallizes as rock salt structure with unit cell length 2.12 Å. From electrostatic
model, the calculated lattice energy in kJ mol−1 (rounded off to the nearest integer) is ______.

(Given: NA = 6.022 x 1023 mol−1; Madelung constant = 1.748;
ε0 = 8.854 x 10−12 J−1 C2 m−1; charge of an electron = 1.602 x 10−19 C)

Q.45 Calcium crystallizes in fcc lattice of unit cell length 5.56 Å and density 1.4848 g cm−3. The
percentage of Schottky defects (rounded off to one decimal place) in the crystal is ______.
(Given: Atomic mass of Ca is 40 g mol−1; NA = 6.022 x 1023 mol−1)

Q.46 Among the following, the total number of terpenes(terpenoids) is ______.

Q.47 A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.3 M NH3 and 0.1 M NH4NO3. If Kb of NH3 is
1.6 x 10−5 at 25 oC, then the pH (rounded off to one decimal place) of the buffer solution at 25 oC is ______.

Q.48 The dissociation constant of a weak monoprotic acid is 1.6 x 10−5 and its molar conductance at infinite dilution is 360.5 x 10−4 mho m2 mol−1. For 0.01 M solution of this acid, the specific conductance is n x 10−2 mho m−1. The value of n (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.

Q.49 Adsorption of a toxic gas on 1.0 g activated charcoal is 0.75 cm3 both at 2.5 atm, 140 K
and at 30.0 atm, 280 K. The isosteric enthalpy for adsorption of the gas in kJ mol−1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.
(Given: R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1)

Q.50 If the root mean square speed of hydrogen gas at a particular temperature is 1900 m s−1,
then the root mean square speed of nitrogen gas at the same temperature, in m s−1 (rounded off to the nearest integer), is ______.
(Given: atomic mass of H is 1 g mol−1; atomic mass of N is 14 g mol−1)

Q. 51 – Q. 60 carry two marks each.
Q.51 If the crystal field splitting energy of [Co(NH3)4]2+ is 5900 cm−1, then the magnitude of its
crystal field stabilization energy, in kJ mol−1(rounded off to one decimal place), is ______

Q.52 A salt mixture (1.0 g) contains 25 wt% of MgSO4 and 75 wt% of M2SO4. Aqueous solution of this salt mixture on treating with excess BaCl2 solution results in the precipitation of 1.49 g of BaSO4. The atomic mass of M in g mol−1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.
(Given: the atomic masses of Mg, S, O, Ba and Cl are 24.31, 32.06, 16.00, 137.33 and 35.45 g mol−1, respectively)

Q.53 The intensity of a monochromatic visible light is reduced by 90% due to absorption on
passing through a 5.0 mM solution of a compound. If the path length is 4 cm, then the molar extinction coefficient of the compound in M−1 cm−1 is ______.

Q.54 The surface tension (γ) of a solution, prepared by mixing 0.02 mol of an organic acid in 1 L of pure water, is represented as γ* − γ = A log(1+Bc)
γ∗ is the surface tension of pure water, A = 0.03 N m–1, B = 50 mol–1 L and c is concentration in mol L–1. The excess concentration of the organic acid at the surface of the liquid, determined by Gibbs adsorption equation at 300 K is n x 10sub>−6 mol m–2. The value of n (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______.
(Given: R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)

Q.55 The separation of energy levels in the rotational spectrum of CO is 3.8626 cm−1. The bond
length (assume it does not change during rotation) of CO in Å (rounded off to two decimal
places) is ___________.
(Given: Planck’s constant h = 6.626 x 10−34 J s; NA = 6.022 x 1023 mol−1; atomic mass of C is 12 g mol−1 ; atomic mass of O is 16 g mol−1 ; c = 3 x 108 m s−1)

Q.56 A dilute solution prepared by dissolving a nonvolatile solute in one liter water shows a depression in freezing point of 0.186 K. This solute neither dissociates nor associates in water. The boiling point of the solution in K (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________.
(Given: For pure water, boiling point = 373.15 K; cryoscopic constant = 1.86 K (mol kg−1)−1 ; ebullioscopic constant = 0.51 K (mol kg−1)−1)

Q.57 The thermodynamic data at 298 K for the decomposition reaction of limestone at equilibrium is given below

Q.58 The mean ionic activity coefficient of 0.004 molal CaCl2 in water at 298 K (rounded off to
three decimal places) is ______.
(Given: Debye-Hückel constant for an aqueous solution at 298 K is 0.509 kg1/2 mol-1/2)

Q.60 For the molecule,
the number of all possible stereoisomers is ______.







Best of Luck

Q.1 Among the following rocks, the one with highest metamorphic grade is

Q.2 The Earth’s radius is maximum at which one of the following latitudes?

Q.3 The closest value to the percentage of the Earth’s surface covered by the oceans is

Q.4 Which is the shallowest among the marine environments listed below?

Q.5 Among the following, the tungsten-bearing mineral is

Q.6 The host rock of Pb-Zn deposit at Zawar is

Q.7 Bituminous coal deposits in India occur in which one of the following formations?

Q.8 Identify the plant fossil from the following list.

Q.9 The igneous body with dome or mushroom-like shape is known as a

Q.10 Which one of the following stratigraphic units belongs to the Cretaceous?

Q.11 Select the youngest volcanic event out of the following.

Q.12 Which among the following is the only possible plunge for a lineation located on the foliation plane striking 20° N and dipping 40° southeasterly?

Q.13 Which one of the following tectonic plates has the maximum average velocity?

Q.14 A limestone contains lime mud and around 25% allochems, which are separated from each other. The name of the rock as per Dunham’s classification is

Q.15 Find the CORRECT statement out of the following.

Q.16 Which one of the following crystal forms DOES NOT belong to the di-tetragonal pyramidal class?

Q.17 If a coarse-grained igneous rock is composed of >90% of plagioclase and <10% of olivine and pyroxene, then the name of this rock according to the IUGS classification is

Q.18 Which one of the following represents the compositional change in plagioclase during the crystallization of mafic magma?

Q.19 Choose the CORRECT sequence of older to younger formations in the stratigraphy of the Cuddapah Supergroup

Q.20 Match the economic deposits (Group I) with their places of occurrence (Group II).

Group I                  Group II
P. Iron ore            1. Bhatan
Q. Base metal     2. Sukinda
R. Chromite         3. Rampura-Agucha
S. Uranium           4. Bellary

Q.21 Select the answer that is a CORRECT match for the three types of unconformities. (Grey bands = sediments, [ + ] = igneous rock).

P. Disconformity

Q. Non-conformity

R. Angular Unconformity

Q.22 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

Q.23 In the context of phylogeny of horses, the CORRECT chronological order from old to young is

Q.24 Choose the CORRECT match between items in Group I with the items in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Polarity zone
Q. Formation
R. Biozone
S. Epoch
1. Biostratigraphy
2. Chronostratigraphy
3. Magnetostratigraphy
4. Lithostratigraphy

Q.25 The following diagram represents the prograde sequence of metamorphic zones that develop during Buchan-type of metamorphism (<4 kbar) of typical pelites. Identify the zones labelled P, Q and R.

Q.26 Match the minerals in Group I with the corresponding composition in Group II.

Group I
P. Leucite
Q. Andradite
R. Sanidine
S. Jadeite
Group II
1. (K,Na)AlSi3O8
2. NaAlSi2O6
3. KAlSi2O6
4. Ca3Fe2Si3O12

Q.27 Choose the CORRECT pair of crystal systems that represents the optic orientation shown in the figure. (X,Y,Z are the principal optical vibration directions and a,b,c are the crystallographic axes).

Q.28 Match the environment representing physical geological processes in Group I with the corresponding geomorphic landform/feature in Group II.

Group I
P. Aeolian
Q. Glacial
R. Fluvial
S. Coastal
Group II
1. Drumlin
2. Tombolo
3. Yardang
4. Natural levee

Q.29 Match the items in Group I with the corresponding items in Group II

Group I
P. Chalcocite
Q. Bauxite
R. Monazite placers
S. Chromite
Group II
1. Supergene enrichment
2. Mechanical accumulation
3. Magmatic crystallization
4. Residual processes

Q.30 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

Q.31 Fossils from which of the following invertebrate classes show pentameral symmetry?

Q.32 The attitude of the two limbs of a fold was measured as striking 4° N, dipping 85° easterly and striking 30° N, dipping 60° easterly. Which of the following is/are TRUE for describing the geometry of the fold?

Q.33 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT regarding ophitic texture?

Q.34 On the basis of the following schematic diagram, choose the CORRECT statement(s).

Q.35 A marine organic-rich, black shale with tiny pyrite crystals shows complete absence of body or trace fossils. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Q.36 Which mineral(s) among the following represent(s) AB2O4 composition?

Q.37 Which among the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Q.38 Which of the following statement(s) regarding hydrocarbon occurrence is/are CORRECT?

Q.39 Following are the statements regarding types of sandstone as per Pettijohn’s classification. Which is/are the CORRECT statement(s) out of the following?

Q.40 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) out of the following.

Q.41 The given section with uniform lithology and sedimentation rate records two ash layers dated at 77 Ma and 76 Ma, respectively. An index fossil species present in the lower part of the section becomes extinct at a horizon 7m above the base. The estimated age of the extinction event is _________________ Ma. (Answer in integer).

Q.42 A hollow discoid (cylindrical) microfossil has an outer diameter of 20 µm, height 10 µm and wall thickness 1 μm. The internal volume that can be occupied by the organism is _______ µm3 . (use π = 3.14) (Round off to one decimal place).

Q.43 In the following isobaric temperature-composition diagram, the number of common phases in all the invariant points is ____________. (Answer in integer).

Add description here!

Q.44 A muscovite has the following composition in which iron is ferrous. The amount of ‘Al’ in the tetrahedral site is _____________ (per formula unit). (Round off to two decimal places). Muscovite composition:

Muscovite composition: KAl2.50Fe0.25Si3.25O10(OH)2

Q.45 The density of a 200 g gabbro sample, cut in the form of a cube, is 3125 kg/m3 . The length of the sample is ________ mm. (Answer in integer)

Q.46 A drill run of 3 m was carried out in a coalfield site, where rock core samples were recovered only for a cumulative length of 255 cm. The core loss in percentage is equal to ______. (Answer in integer)

Q.47 During concretionary growth of a spherical grain of radius 2 Å, the rate of change of surface area with respect to change in radius of the grain is ______ X10-8 cm (use π = 3.14) (Round off to two decimal places)

Q.48 The weight loss during the conversion of 1 mole of gypsum to anhydrite is ______ % (atomic weights of Ca = 40.0, S = 32.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0). (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.49 A bed with an attitude 020°, 30° NW is rotated 55° counter-clockwise (looking northerly) along its strike line. The dip of the bed after rotation will be _______° NW. (Answer in integer).

Q.50 The width of the outcrop of a fault zone on a flat surface is 100 m as shown in the figure. A vertical borehole through the fault zone measured its vertical thickness to be 100 m. The true thickness of the fault zone is ________ m. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.51 In an oblique slip fault with an attitude 000, 30° E, the net slip vector has a length of 20 m and a rake of 30° S on the fault plane. The displacement of a horizontal bed along the fault trace in a plane perpendicular to the strike of the fault is ___________ m. (Answer in integer).

Q.52 If the activity of a radioactive mineral falls from 800 counts/s to 500 counts/s in 80 minutes, half-life of the mineral is _______ minutes. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.53 In a laboratory experiment, water discharge through a porous rock sample in 2 hours was 10 cm3. The cylindrical rock sample is 10 cm long and has a diameter of 50 mm. If the discharge occurred at a constant head of 300 cm, the coefficient of permeability of the rock sample is _____ X 10-6 cm/s. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.54 The following diagram represents a binary phase diagram for the system A–B at atmospheric pressure. If ‘X’ is the initial composition of melt, then the amount of melt that converts to solid when the magma cools from 1400 °C to 1250 °C is ____________ %. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.55 The following table shows modal abundance and mineral composition data of a plutonic igneous rock. The amount of SiO2 in bulk composition of the rock is ____________ %. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.56 Refer to the schematic sketch given (not to scale). Assume average saturated density of oceanic crustal rocks = 3200 kg/m3 , density of ocean water = 1000 kg/m3 , and acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2 . The overburden pressure at a point (P) located 2 km below seabed and 4 km below the ocean surface is ________________ MPa. (Answer in integer).

Q.57 If the indices of refraction of a uniaxial section are ε = 1.653 and ω= 1.544, and the retardation between the two rays is 550 nm, then the thickness of the section is _______ µm. (Round off to two decimal places)

Q.58 A crystal has lattice parameters of a : 4.26 Å, b : 10 Å and c : 3.44 Å, respectively. A plane intercepts on the a, b and c axes at 2.13 Å, 10 Å and 1.72 Å, respectively. The Miller Indices for the plane, written as an integer, is _____________(Answer in integer).

Q.59 In the uvavorite garnet (Ca3+2Cr2+3Si3+4O12), Ca is in cubic coordination, Cr is in octahedral coordination and Si is in tetrahedral coordination. The electrostatic bond strength of the Ca2+ central ion is _______. (Round off to two decimal places).

Q.60 In a structurally controlled fluvial setting, an asymmetric flight of river terraces T1, T2, T3 shown in the figure was sampled at location L1. The age of the sample at L1 was 30 ka (kiloyears). Assuming that the terraces were formed entirely due to deformation related uplift, the average uplift rate in the past 30 ka in the region was _______________ mm/yr. (Answer in integer)